Who does the 2nd Amendment apply to? Women, minorities, poor men?
The 2nd Amendment to the Constitution simply
says, "A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free
State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
When this amendment was ratified in 1791 women and blacks,
and non-landowning men were not considered to be people with rights. When the country was founded, in most states,
only white men with real property (land) or sufficient wealth for taxation were
permitted to vote. Unpropertied white
men, women, and all other people of color were denied the franchise. Literacy tests, poll taxes, and even
religious tests were used in various places.
I wonder who was given the right to keep and bear arms in
the original amendment? Was it just white
men with real property?
Why should we assume the rest of us have that right, just
because we all now have the right to vote?
The 2nd Amendment was not amended to grant these rights?
If we are to assume that the subsequent amendments, granting
the voting right to women and minorities, applies to the 2nd
Amendment, then why not assume that other things have changed about the 2nd
Amendment?

0 Comments:
Post a Comment
<< Home